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Dundee United v St Mirren Championship 22/4/17


shull

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28 minutes ago, Slartibartfast said:

 


OK, I'll actually get you to show the flaw. Before a ball is kicked, which team has a zero probability?

 

The team that loses to the other team we don't play in the "semi". They are the team that has zero chance of beating us. 

Edited by TPAFKA Jersey 2
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1 hour ago, smcc said:

A lot of hot air is being spouted. There are 4 teams in with a chance of coming out on top. It matters not a jot how many games have to be played; the chance of winning will be the same whether they play each other once, twice or twenty times.

Actually it won't.

That's the bit Slarti got right. :P

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32 minutes ago, Slartibartfast said:

 


OK, I'll actually get you to show the flaw. Before a ball is kicked, which team has a zero probability?

One of the teams who finishes in either second or third in League One will have zero probability of playing us.

That is a factual condition and must be taken into account before a ball is kicked.

You are failing to do that.

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1 minute ago, Slartibartfast said:

 


But there could be two teams who don't play us as we could lose our first tie.

You are applying a condition before that condition has been met.

Do you still think that there is a 4 in 3 chance of one of the four teams winning the playoffs?

 

You asked me to explain who the team was that have zero chance of beating us. I said the team who loses the other semi final. How is that fact affected by our inability to win our semi? 

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5 minutes ago, Slartibartfast said:

 


But there could be two teams who don't play us as we could lose our first tie.

You are applying a condition before that condition has been met.
 

Nope. It is factually true regardless of whether we win the first game or not.

That is why it is irrelevant.

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Your logic is the same as saying that - if I buy a ticket in the national lottery I'll either win or lose. 

Therefore it's fifty fifty. 

What you're doing is thinking that I've got a ticket which is a loser and someone else has a ticket that is a winner, it could have been the other way about therefore fifty fifty. 

Where you're going wrong is that you're not taking into account all of the other tickets that are losers. 

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2 minutes ago, uhura said:

Your logic is the same as saying that - if I buy a ticket in the national lottery I'll either win or lose. 

Therefore it's fifty fifty. 

What you're doing is thinking that I've got a ticket which is a loser and someone else has a ticket that is a winner, it could have been the other way about therefore fifty fifty. 

Where you're going wrong is that you're not taking into account all of the other tickets that are losers. 

Who are you addressing here? You can have two lottery winners so it is NOTHING like the playoffs.

Edited by oaksoft
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3 minutes ago, oaksoft said:

I think we are helping each other out ......... like two drunks trying to negotiate a set of steps. :lol:

:lol::lol:

i have a horrible feeling though that in the true law of statistics/probability, Slartibartfast is probably (no pun intended) correct. I further suspect that he knows exactly what we are trying to say, agrees with the spirit of what we are trying to say, but is intent on being a pedantic smartypants :P.

If he is indeed correct, then I refer you to an earlier post of mine and would contend that the law of statistics/probability gobbles donkeys! 

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1 hour ago, uhura said:

Your logic is the same as saying that - if I buy a ticket in the national lottery I'll either win or lose. 

Therefore it's fifty fifty. 

What you're doing is thinking that I've got a ticket which is a loser and someone else has a ticket that is a winner, it could have been the other way about therefore fifty fifty. 

Where you're going wrong is that you're not taking into account all of the other tickets that are losers. 

I would love this idea.

I would probably buy the losing ticket.

I mean........................................................................what's the chances? 

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